Assuming all other things equal, it is possible that the lower-of-cost-or-market method can result in any given year in higher income than would be

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Assuming all other things equal, it is possible that the lower-of-cost-or-market method can result in any given year in higher income than would be the case under the same inventory costing method without the use of lower-of-cost-or-market. If so, then lower-of-cost-or-market cannot be classified as a conservative method. Do you agree with this statement? Why or why not?

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